HSEE 2017 QUESTION PAPER
HSEE 2018 QUESTION PAPER
HSEE 2019 QUESTION PAPER
HSEE 2019 SOLUTION
Section 2: Analytical and Quantitative Ability
This question carries 1mark.
Q.33 ) The number of zeros at the end of 99 (factorial 99) is
[A] 2 [B] 12 [C] 22 [D] 32
Ans:C
Q.34) 1+ 2^2 + 2^4 + 2^6 + … + 2^48 =
[A] 2^49−1 [B] (2^49−1)/3 [C] 2^50−1 [D] (2^50−1)/3
Ans:D
Q.35 )(𝟏 − 𝟏/ 𝟐 )(𝟏 −𝟏 /𝟑 )(𝟏 −𝟏 /𝟒 )…(𝟏 −𝟏 /𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎) =
[A] 0.0001 [B] 0.001 [C] 0.01 [D] 0.1
Ans:B
Q.36)If the difference between two specific numbers is 12, the LCM of the two numbers is 63 and the HCF of the two numbers is 3, then the sum of the two numbers is
[A] 30 [B] 25 [C] 15 [D] 45
Ans:A
Q.37 )Five different alarm clocks ring their alarms at every 15 minutes, 30 minutes, 45 minutes, 1 hour, and 75 minutes, respectively. If all the alarms are rung together now, then how many more times all the clocks ring together again in the next 48 hours?
[A] 2 [B] 3 [C] 4 [D] 5
Ans:B
Q.38)The HCF of (𝟐𝟗𝟗 − 𝟏) and (𝟐𝟏𝟐 − 𝟏) is
[A] 4095 [B] 127 [C] 15 [D] 7
Ans:A
Q.39) The LCM of (𝒙𝟐 − 𝟒) and (𝒙𝟐 + 𝒙 − 𝟔) is
[A] 𝒙𝟑 + 𝟑𝒙𝟐 − 𝟒𝒙 − 𝟏𝟐
[B] 𝒙𝟒 + 𝒙𝟑 − 𝟏𝟎𝒙𝟐 − 𝟒𝒙 + 𝟐𝟒
[C] 𝟐𝒙𝟐 + 𝒙 − 𝟏𝟎
[D] 𝒙 − 𝟐
Ans:A
Q.40)In 2019, the average age of Eric, Phillip, and Naveen is 30 years. In 2024, the average age of Eric and Phillip will be 33 years. The age of Naveen in 2019 is
[A] 24 years [B] 29 years [C] 34 years [D] 39 years
Ans:C
Q.41)Let 𝑎1,𝑎2,…,𝑎5 and 𝑏1,𝑏2,…,𝑏5 are two sets of consecutive positive numbers. The average of 𝑎1,𝑎2,…,𝑎5 is 2 less than the average of 𝑏1,𝑏2,…,𝑏5. How many numbers are common between the sets 𝑎1,𝑎2,…,𝑎5 and 𝑏1,𝑏2,…,𝑏5?
[A] 0 [B] 1 [C] 2 [D] 3
Ans:C
Q.42 )If 𝒑 ∶ 𝒒 = 𝟐 ∶ 𝟑 and 𝒒 ∶ 𝒓 = 𝟗 ∶ 𝟖, then 𝒑 √𝒑𝟐+𝒓𝟐=
[A] 𝟑 /𝟓
[B] 𝟏/ 𝟑
[C] 𝟐 /𝟓
[D] 𝟐 /𝟑
Ans:A
Q.43 )The number of boys in a class is 25 more than the number of girls and the ratio of boys to girls is 3:2. The total number of students in the class is
[A] 75 [B] 100 [C] 125 [D] 150
Ans:C
Q.44 )The sides of a right-angled triangle are in the ratio 3:4:5 and the area of the triangle is 96 cm2. The length of the largest side of the triangle is
[A] 16 cm [B] 20 cm [C] 24 cm [D] 12 cm
Ans:B
Q.45)Alvin sold an item to Brandon at a profit of 20% and Brandon sold the same to Christopher at a profit of 15%. If Brandon obtained a profit of Rupees 72, then the profit obtained by Alvin is
[A] Rupees 96 [B] Rupees 88 [C] Rupees 80 [D] Rupees 72
Ans:C
Q.46 )By using a false weight, an unfair shopkeeper sells all his goods at cost price and still obtains 25% profit. The actual weight of the 1 kg used by the shopkeeper is
A] 750 g [B] 800 g [C] 850 g [D] 900 g
Ans:B
Q.47)Assume that the length of a rectangle is increased by 25% and the width is decreased by 𝑥% such that there is no change in the area of the rectangle. The value of 𝑥 is
[A] 4 [B] 25 [C] 12.5 [D] 20
Ans:D
Q.48 )Consider three persons Amar, Akbar, and Anthony. Amar can complete a task in 40 days and Akbar in 60 days. If all three work together, they can complete the task in 16 days. If Anthony works alone, then he will be able to complete the task in
[A] 50 days [B] 48 days [C] 46 days [D] 44 days
Ans:B
Q.49 )A team of N persons can complete a task in 24 days. After 6 days of working together by the team of N persons, another 6 persons join them and these N+6 persons complete the remaining part of the task in the next 12 days. If all are equally capable then the value of N is
[A] 6 [B] 12 [C] 18 [D] 24
Q.50) Six years ago, the age of Ally was 4 times that of Bally, and the age of Cally was 2 times that of Bally. If the present age of Ally is 1.5 times the present age of Cally, then the present age of Bally is
[A] 3 years [B] 12 years [C] 6 years [D] 9 years
Ans:B
Q.51) The age proportion of a trio of grandfather, father, and son at present is 5:3:1 and the age gap between the father and son is 20 years. The age proportion of the trio will become 3:2:1 after
[A] 5 years [B] 10 years [C] 15 years [D] 20 years
Q.52) The rate of interest in a saving account is 10% per annum, compounded annually. The total amount of interest earned, by this compound interest scheme, after 2 years is
[A] 0.11 times of the principal amount.
[B] 0.21 times of the principal amount.
[C] 0.31 times of the principal amount.
[D] 0.41 times of the principal amount.
Q.53)A particular sect has a population of 32,768. Each year, the population is reduced by 75%. The population at the end of 7 years will be
[A] 2 [B] 16 [C] 32 [D] 64
Ans:A
Q.54 )Consider 100 positive integers, 𝑥1,𝑥2,…,𝑥100, such that 𝒙𝟏 − 𝒙𝟐 = 𝟏, 𝒙𝟐 − 𝒙𝟑 = 𝟐, 𝒙𝟑 − 𝒙𝟒 = 𝟑, … 𝒙𝟗𝟗 − 𝒙𝟏𝟎𝟎 = 𝟗𝟗. If 𝒙𝟏𝟎𝟎 = 𝟏𝟎𝟎, then the value of 𝒙𝟏 is
[A] 1 [B] 1050 [C] 4050 [D] 5050
Q.55)𝐬𝐢𝐧(𝟑𝟎°) + 𝐜𝐨𝐬(𝟔𝟎°) =
[A] √𝟑
[B] 1
[C] √𝟐
[D] 2√𝟑
Ans:B
Q.56 )In certain coding pattern, if APPLE is NCCBR, then ORANGE is
[A] DENAVR [B] BENATR [C] DENATR [D] BENAVR
Ans:A
Q.57)Fill in the blank with the correct option that represents the correct pattern in the sequence given below.
ECG; JHL; OMQ; __________
[A] SQU [B] XVZ [C] TRV [D] DBF
Ans:C
Q.58 )The total number of squares in an 8x8 chess board is
[A] 64 [B] 144 [C] 184 [D] 204
Ans:D
Q.59 )Consider a sequence of numbers i.e. 3, 8, 24, 48, 120, 168, 288,--------. The number that comes immediately after 288 is
[A] 456 [B] 336 [C] 360 [D] 408
Ans:C
Q.60 )Consider a 5-digit number 𝑎𝑏𝑐𝑑𝑒, such that 𝑏 is twice that of 𝑑; 𝑎 is equal to the sum of 𝑐 and 𝑒; 𝑒 is equal to the difference of 𝑏 and 𝑎; and 𝑑 is twice that of 𝑐.The number that represents 𝑎𝑏𝑐𝑑𝑒 is
[A] 34221 [B] 24122 [C] 58243 [D] 68244
This question carries 2 marks.
Q.61)One option or more options is/are correct answer(s) to this question.
The calendar for the year 2019 will be the same for the year(s)
[A] 2024 [B] 2030 [C] 2036 [D] 2041
Ans:C&D
Q.62 This question carries 2 marks. One option or more options is/are correct answer(s) to this question.
Alex purchased 2 kg tomatoes and 5 kg potatoes for Rupees 100 and Bob purchased 3 kg potatoes and 4 kg onions for Rupees 80. The option(s) suited for the above conditions for the cost of 1 kg tomatoes and 1 kg onions, is/are
[A] Rupees 20 and Rupees 11, respective
[B] Rupees 10 and Rupees 8, respectively.
[C] Rupees 12 and Rupees 10, respectively.
[D] Rupees 25 and Rupees 12.50, respectively.
Q.63 )This question carries 2 marks. One option or more options is/are correct answer(s) to this question.
𝐬𝐞𝐜^𝟐(𝜽)− 𝐭𝐚𝐧^𝟐(𝜽) =
[A] 1 [B] 𝒄𝒐𝒔𝒆𝒄𝟐(𝜽)− 𝐜𝐨𝐭𝟐(𝜽) [C] 𝟏−𝐬𝐢𝐧(𝜽) 𝐜𝐨𝐬(𝜽)[D] 0
Ans:A&B
Q.64 )This question carries 2 marks. One option or more options is/are correct answer(s) to this question.
The marks obtained by Arun and Barun in five subjects (out of 100 per subject) are given here. The marks obtained by Arun in Subjects 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are 80, 70, 60, 90 and 80, respectively. The marks obtained by Barun in Subjects 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are 70, 90, 70, 60 and 100, respectively.
The correct statement(s) among the following is/are
[A] The ratio of the highest marks to the lowest marks obtained by Arun is 3:2.
[B] In Subject 4, Barun obtained 30% less than Arun.
[C] Excluding the highest scored subject and the lowest scored subject for each student, the average marks obtained by both the students is the same.
[D] If 𝑛𝑥 is the number of subjects in which student 𝑥 scored more than his own average marks, then 𝑛𝐵𝑎𝑟𝑢𝑛 > 𝑛𝐴𝑟𝑢𝑛.
Section 3a: General Studies–Indian Economy
Q.65 Along a linear demand curve, the price elasticity of demand is
[A] elastic over the upper portion of the demand curve and inelastic over the lower portion of the demand curve. [B] inelastic over the upper portion of the demand curve and elastic over the lower portion of the demand curve. [C] elastic throughout. [D] constant along the demand curve.
Ans:D
Q.66 Suppose a bundle X lies on an indifference curve and another bundle Y lies to the right of the indifference curve, then the consumer
[A] prefers bundle X to Y. [B] prefers bundle Y to X. [C] indifferent between bundle X and Y. [D] must receive more of both – with bundle Y.
Ans:
Q.67 Movement along the demand curve is caused by
[A] changes in the tastes and preferences of the consumer. [B] changes in the price of the good. [C] changes in the incomes of the consumer. [D] changes in the prices of related goods.
Ans:B
Q.68 The option that contains WRONG expansion of an abbreviation is (1 mark)
[A] FIPB Foreign Investment Promotion Board [B] IRBI Industrial Reconstruction Bank of India [C] IREDA Indian Renewable Energy Development Association [D] IIP Index of Industrial Production
Ans:C
Q.69 Currency notes, coins and demand deposits held by the public in commercial banks are known as
[A] high powered money. [B] narrow money. [C] fiat money. [D] commodity money.
Ans:C
Q.70 Gross National Product (GNP) can be defined as the
[A] total value of goods and services produced within a country in the current period. [B] total value of all market transactions carried out in an economy in the current period. [C] total value of goods and services produced in the current period including the net factor income earning from abroad. [D] depreciation of capital stock and additions to stock (inventory).
Ans:A
Q.71 The regime in which the Central Bank intervenes in the foreign exchange market by buying and selling foreign currencies to keep exchange rate fluctuations within bounds is known as
[A] fixed exchange rate. [B] dirty floating exchange rate. [C] pegged exchange rate. [D] clean float exchange rate.
Ans:C
Q.72 Bank rate refers to the rate at which
[A] commercial banks lends to public. [B] commercial banks borrow money from Reserve Bank of India (RBI). [C] Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends to the Government of India. [D] commercial banks charge from another bank for borrowing.
Ans:B
Q.73 If Average Total Cost (ATC) is falling then
(1 mark) [A] Marginal Cost (MC) must be less than Average Total Cost (ATC). [B] Total Cost (TC) must be constant. [C] the Average Fixed Cost (AFC) must be above the Average Variable Cost (AVC) curve. [D] Marginal Cost (MC) must be greater than the Average Total Cost (ATC).
Ans:A
Q.74 The process of moving from self-employment and regular salaried employment to wage work is known as
[A] informalization. [B] disguised unemployment. [C] casualization of workforce. [D] distress employment.
Ans:C
Q.75 The indicator used to measure the number of people dying prematurely or living in the state of ‘disability’ is known as
[A] Global Burden of Disease. [B] infant mortality and maternal mortality rates. [C] crude death rate. [D] life expectancy.
Ans:
Q.76 A price ceiling will have no effect if the
[A] demand curve is vertical. [B] demand curve is horizontal. [C] supply curve is vertical. [D] supply curve is horizontal.
Ans:
Q.77 Specific poverty alleviation programmes aimed at creation of assets by means of employment generation started during the
[A] First Five-Year Plan. [B] Second Five-Year Plan. [C] Third Five-Year Plan. [D] Fourth Five-Year Plan.
Ans:A
Q.78 The ‘education cess’ on all union taxes is earmarked for
[A] spending on elementary education. [B] spending on colleges, polytechnics and universities. [C] providing loans for students to pursue higher education. [D] making investment in the skill development programmes.
Ans:
Q.79 This question carries 2 marks. One option or more options is/are correct answer(s) to this question.
Among the following elements, the essential element(s) of foreign aid or Overseas Development Assistance (ODA) given by the international agencies to the developing countries is/are
[A] development grants [B] loans with at least 25% grant [C] military assistance [D] technical co-operation
Ans:A&B
Q.80 This question carries 2 marks. One option or more options is/are correct answer(s) to this question.
The characteristic(s) of a perfectly competitive market structure is/are
[A] firms in the market produces homogenous goods [B] both sellers and buyers are price takers [C] firms can enter and exit the market freely [D] price and average revenue for the firm is the same
Ans:A&C
Section 3b: General Studies–Indian Society and Culture
Q.81 In the ancient Indian texts, the Greeks are known as
[A] Pahlava [B] Shakas [C] Yavanas [D] Aryans
Ans:C
Q.82 Out of the four listed items valued in Indian tradition, the odd one is
A] Tulsi [B] Turmeric [C] Basmati [D] Neem
Ans:C
Q.83 “I want the concentration of wealth, not in the hands of a few, but in the hands of all.” It was a quotation from
[A] Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar
[B] Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi
[C] Jawaharlal Nehru
[D] Jayaprakash Narayan
Ans:B
Q.84 Out of the four important scholars of Indian art listed below, one is not an Indian. The non-Indian scholar is
[A] Rukmini Devi Arundel [B] Kamaladevi Chattopadhyaya [C] Ananda Coomaraswamy [D] Laila Tyabji
Ans:C
Q.85 The Bardoli Satyagraha was directed against
[A] indigo plantation
[B] taxes on land
[C] salt tax
[D] cotton levy
Ans:B
Q.86 The Telangana movement began in
[A] 1952 [B] 1953
[C] 1942 [D] 1946
Ans:B
Q.87 Among the following, the largest circulating newspaper in India is [A] Dainik Jagran [B] Amar Ujala
[C] The Times of India [D] Hindustan Times
Ans:A
Q.88 Among the following states of India, the most urbanized state as per 2011 Census and by considering the proportion of people living in urban areas is
[A] Kerala [B] Maharashtra [C] Karnataka
[D] Tamil Nadu
Ans:D
Q.89 The British Governor General who was also the Commander of the British forces during the American War of Independence is (1 mark)
[A] Arthur Wellesley [B] Robert Clive [C] Charles Cornwallis [D] Horatio Nelson
Ans:D
Q.90 The terms (i) Palempore, (ii) Manchester, (iii) Madhubani and (iv) Mahabalipuram, are related to (1 mark)
[A] bed covering, sculptures, paintings and textiles, respectively.
[B] bed covering, textiles, paintings and sculptures, respectively.
[C] sculptures, textiles, paintings and bed covering, respectively.
[D] sculptures, textiles, bed covering and paintings, respectively.
Ans:B
Q.91 Artisanal guilds were known as
[A] karakhanas [B] nigamas [C] shrenis [D] hastakala
Q.92 The terms (i) sandalwood, (ii) muslin, (iii) Chanderi and (iv) Kasi, are related to
[A] Mysore, Dhaka, Madhya Pradesh and silk, respectively.
[B] Dhaka, Mysore, silk and Madhya Pradesh, respectively.
[C] Mysore, Madhya Pradesh, silk and Dhaka, respectively.
[D] Madhya Pradesh, silk, Dhaka and Mysore, respectively.
Ans:A
Q.93 In the Preamble of the Constitution of India, in addition to Liberty, Equality and Fraternity, another virtue has been added with a resolve to be secured for “We, The People of India”. The added virtue is
[A] Independence [B] Friendship
[C] Non-discrimination [D] Justice
Ans:D
Q.94 The Mansabdari system was devised by
[A] Babar [B] Humayun
[C] Akbar [D] Aurangazeb
Ans:A
Q.95 This question carries 2 marks. One option or more options is/are correct answer to this question.
The famous personage(s) who belonged to the confederacies called ganas or sanghas is/are
(2 marks)
[A] Siddhartha Gautama [B] Vardhamana Mahavira [C] Bimbisara
[D] Ajatashatru Q.96 This question carries 2 marks. One option or more options is/are correct answer to this question.
The script(s) predominantly discovered in ancient inscriptions is/are (2 marks)
[A] Brahmi [B] Devanagari [C] Indus
[D] Kharoshti
Section 3c: General Studies–World Affairs
Q.97 Father of Chinese Republic is
[A] Dr. Sun Yat-Sen [B] Mao Tse-Tung [C] Zhou Enlai [D] Hu Jintao
Ans:A
Q.98 Arab–Israeli conflict led to the aggression between
[A] Israel and Palestine
[B] Palestine and Turkey
[C] Turkey and Armenia
[D] Israel and Turkey
Ans:A
Q.99 Executive Presidency is followed in
[A] Sri Lanka [B] Japan [C] UK [D] Italy
Ans:A
Q.100 The first Communist State located in the Western Hemisphere was ruled for five decades by (1 mark)
[A] Adolf Hitler [B] Fidel Castro [C] Mao Zedong [D] Nikita Khrushchev
Ans:B
Q.101 The symbol of “ten stalks of Paddy (Rice)” represents the 10 countries that comprise the (1 mark)
[A] SAARC [B] BRICS [C] ASEAN [D] NAFTA
Ans:C
Q.102 Queen Elizabeth II is the formal head of
[A] Canada [B] USA [C] South Africa [D] Nigeria
Q.103 The method of the election process in India is
[A] first past the post [B] alternate vote [C] second ballot system [D] party list system
Ans:A
Q.104 Human Development Report (HDR) is published by
[A] UNDP [B] UNEP [C] UNICEF [D] UNESCO
Ans:A
Q.105 The Brahmaputra River is important for
[A] China, India and Bangladesh
[B] China, India and Burma
[C] China, Pakistan and India
[D] India, Bangladesh and Nepal
Ans:A
Q.106 The two theocracies in the World are
[A] Vatican City and Iran
[B] Vatican City and Iraq
[C] Iran and Israel
[D] Israel and Bhutan
Ans:A
Q.107 The official Language of Brazil is
[A] Spanish [B] Portuguese [C] French [D] English
Ans:B
Q.108 Imposition of President’s Rule in any state of India can be exercised under certain circumstances. This imposition is exercised under the
(1 mark)
[A] Article 364 [B] Article 370 [C] Article 356 [D] Article 348
Ans:C
Q.109 “Chancellor” is the head of the Government in
[A] Germany [B] US [C] Japan [D] Russia
Ans:A
Q.110 Operation Infinite Reach on Al- Qaeda Terrorists was ordered by
[A] Bill Clinton [B] George W. Bush [C] Barack Obama [D] Ronald Reagan
Ans:A
Q.111 This question carries 2 marks. One option or more options is/are correct answer(s) to this question.
The correct item(s) of the Union List is/are
(2 marks)
[A] Foreign Affairs [B] Communications
[C] Police [D] Foreign Trade
Q.112 This question carries 2 marks. One option or more options is/are correct answer(s) to this question.
The correct combination(s) of country name and constitutional feature is/are (2 marks)
[A] UK: Rule of Law [B] US: Fundamental Rights [C] Canada: Residual Powers
[D] France: Liberty, Equality and Fraternity
Section 3d: General Studies–Ecology and Environment
Q.113 If B is Natality, D is Mortality, I is Immigration, E is Emigration, and Nt is population at time t, then the population N(t+1) is
[A] Nt + [(B+D) − (I+E)] [B] Nt + [(B+I) − (D+E)]
[C] Nt + [(I+E) − (B+D)] [D] Nt + [(D+E) − (B+I)]
Ans:B
Q.114 The current human population of a developing area in India is 1 million and the carrying capacity is 2 million. If the intrinsic rate of natural increase per capita for the population is 0.02, then the estimated rate of increase in population for the "logistic growth model" is
[A] 1000
[B] 10000 [C] 2000 [D] 20000
Q.115 Net primary productivity is
[A] Gross primary productivity − Respiration + Transpiration [B] Gross primary productivity − Respiration [C] Gross primary productivity − Transpiration
[D] Gross primary productivity − Respiration − Transpiration
Ans:B
Q.116 In the last 3 billion years there were five episodes of mass extinction of species. The estimated rates for the sixth extinction (current) are
[A] 10 to 20 times faster [B] 10 to 50 times faster [C] 10 to 100 times faster [D] 100 to 1000 times faster
Ans:D
Q.117 The gases responsible for global warming are
[A] carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide, hydrocarbons and carbon monoxide.
[B] carbon dioxide, methane, chlorofluoro carbons and halogens.
[C] carbon dioxide, methane, hydrocarbons and carbon monoxide.
[D] chlorofluoro carbons, halogens, hydrocarbons and carbon monoxide.
Q.118 Presence of excess nitrate in drinking water causes
[A] skeletal nitrosis [B] black foot disease [C] blue baby syndrome [D] foot in the mouth disease
Ans:C
Q.119 Among the following, the least abundant gas in Earth’s atmosphere is
[A] carbon dioxide [B] methane [C] argon [D] hydrogen
Ans:D
Q.120 The Chipko movement to protect trees started in
[A] Kashmir [B] West Bengal [C] Madhya Pradesh [D] Uttarakhand
Ans:D
Q.121 In a grass → deer → tiger food chain, for a grass biomass of 1000 t (t = tonne), the typical tiger biomass supported is in the range of
[A] 10 t to 100 t [B] 1 t to 10 t [C] 10 kg to 100 kg [D] 1 kg to 10 kg
Q.122 Most useful wavelength regions of solar energy for efficient photosynthesis are
[A] green and red [B] blue and red [C] blue and green [D] green and violet
Q.123 For removal of air pollutants, scrubber device uses
[A] liquid spray [B] filters [C] electrodes [D] catalyst
Ans:B
Q.124 The concentration of an aqueous salt solution in parts per trillion (ppt) is equivalent to number of nanogram of the salt dissolved in
[A] 10 gm of water [B] 1000 gm of water [C] 100 gm of water [D] 10000 gm of water
Q.125 The tidal effect is primarily due to
(1 mark)
[A] the gravitational force of the Moon only. [B] the centrifugal force of the Earth's rotation only. [C] combination of the gravitational force of the Moon and the centrifugal force of the Earth's rotation. [D] the gravitational force of the Sun only.
Q.126 Eutrophication of water body is primarily due to the enrichment of (1 mark) [A] phosphorus
[B] nitrogen [C] carbon [D] potassium
Q.127 This question carries 2 marks. One option or more options is/are correct answer(s) to this question.
The major cause(s) of land degradation and subsequent soil erosion in relative terms at the global level is/are (2 marks) [A] over grazing
[B] deforestation [C] agriculture [D] industrial activity
32
Q.128 This question carries 2 marks. One option or more options is/are correct answer(s) to this question.
Ramsar convention address(es)
(2 marks)
[A] conservation of terrestrial biodiversity [B] conservation of marine diversity [C] conservation of wetland
[D] conservation of mangroves and coral reefs